Understanding Normal and Clinical Nutrition 9th edition Rolfes Test Bank


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  • Published: 2011
  • ISBN-13: 978-0840068453
  • ISBN-10: 084006845X


understanding normal and clinical nutrition 9th edition test bank

Chapter 1 – An Overview of Nutrition

An. Page(s)/difficulty                                                                     K = knowledge-level, A = application level

Multiple Choice

Questions for Section 1.0 Introduction

c     3(K)                  01.  Features of a chronic disease include all of the following except

  1. it develops slowly.
  2. it lasts a long time.
  3. it produces sharp pains.
  4. it progresses gradually.


b    3(K)                  02.  Characteristics of an acute disease include all of the following except

  1. it develops quickly.
  2. it progresses slowly.
  3. it runs a short course.
  4. it causes sharp symptoms.


Questions for Section 1.1 Food Choices


b    3(K)                  03.  What is the chief reason people choose the foods they eat?

  1. Cost
  2. Taste
  3. Convenience
  4. Nutritional value


d    3-5(A)               04.  All of the following are results of making poor food choices except

  1. over the long term, they will reduce lifespan in some people.
  2. they can promote heart disease and cancer over the long term.
  3. over the long term, they will not affect lifespan in some people.
  4.          when made over just a single day, they exert great harm to your health.


d    4(A)                  05.  A child who developed a strong dislike of noodle soup after consuming some when she was sick with flu is an example of a food-related

  1. habit.
  2. social interaction.
  3. emotional turmoil.
  4. negative association.


c     4(A)                  06.  A parent who offers a child a favorite snack as a reward for good behavior is displaying a food behavior known as

  1. social interaction.
  2. reverse psychology.
  3. positive association.
  4. habitual reinforcement.


a     4(A)                  07.  A person who eats a bowl of oatmeal for breakfast every day would be displaying a food choice most likely based on

  1. habit.
  2. availability.
  3. body image.
  4. environmental concerns.


d    4(A)                  08.  Which of the following represents a food choice based on negative association?

  1. A tourist from China who rejects a hamburger due to unfamiliarity
  2. A child who spits out his mashed potatoes because they taste too salty
  3. A teenager who grudgingly accepts an offer for an ice cream cone to avoid offending a close friend
  4. An elderly gentleman who refuses a peanut butter and jelly sandwich because he deems it a child’s food


a     4(A)                  09.  The motive for a person who alters his diet due to religious convictions is most likely his

  1. values.
  2. body image.
  3. ethnic heritage.
  4. functional association.


c     4(A)                  10.  A person viewing an exciting sports match of her favorite team and eating because of nervousness would be displaying a food choice behavior most likely based on

  1. habit.
  2. availability.
  3. emotional comfort.
  4. positive association.


d    4(K)                  11.  Excluding fast-food establishments, approximately what percentage of restaurants in the United States show an ethnic emphasis?

  1. 15
  2. 30
  3. 45
  4. 60


d    5(K)                  12.  Terms that describe a food that provides health benefits beyond its nutrient contribution include all of the following except

  1. neutraceutical.
  2. designer food.
  3. functional food.
  4. phytonutritional food.


c     5(K)                  13.  What is the term that defines foods that contain nonnutrient substances whose known action in the body is to promote well-being to a greater extent than that contributed by the food’s nutrients?

  1. Fortified foods
  2. Enriched foods
  3. Functional foods
  4. Health enhancing foods


c     5(K)                  14.  Nonnutrient substances found in plant foods that show biological activity in the body are commonly known as

  1. folionutrients.
  2. inorganic fibers.
  3. phytochemicals.
  4.          phyllochemicals.


Questions for Section 1.2 The Nutrients


a     6(A)                  15.  The complete lining of a person’s digestive tract is renewed approximately every

  1. 3-5 days.
  2. 3 weeks.
  3. 1-2 months.
  4. 6-12 months.


b    6(K)                  16.  By chemical analysis, what nutrient is present in the highest amounts in most foods?

  1. Fats
  2. Water
  3. Proteins
  4. Carbohydrates


d    7(A)                  17.  Approximately how much water (lbs) would be found in a 120-lb person?

  1. 12
  2. 24
  3. 36
  4. 72


a     7(K)                  18.  Which of the following is not one of the six classes of nutrients?

  1. Fiber
  2. Protein
  3. Minerals
  4. Vitamins


d    7(A)                  19.  A nutrient needed by the body and that must be supplied by foods is termed a(n)

  1. neutraceutical.
  2. metabolic unit.
  3. organic nutrient.
  4. essential nutrient.


c     7(A)                  20.  All of the following are classified as macronutrients except

  1. fat.
  2. protein.
  3. calcium.
  4. carbohydrate.


a     7(A)                  21.  Which of the following is an example of a macronutrient?

  1. Protein
  2. Calcium
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin D


a     7(A)                  22.  Which of the following is classified as a micronutrient?

  1. Iron
  2. Protein
  3. Alcohol
  4. Carbohydrate


d    7(A)                  23.  Which of the following is an organic compound?

  1. Salt
  2. Water
  3. Calcium
  4. Vitamin C


c     7(A)                  24.  An essential nutrient is one that cannot be

  1. found in food.
  2. degraded by the body.
  3. made in sufficient quantities by the body.
  4. used to synthesize other compounds in the body.


d    7(A)                  25.  Which of the following most accurately describes the term organic?

  1. Products sold at health food stores
  2. Products grown without use of pesticides
  3. Foods having superior nutrient qualities
  4. Substances with carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen bonds


a     7(A)                  26.  Which of the following is an organic nutrient?

  1. Fat
  2. Water
  3. Oxygen
  4. Calcium


c     7(K)                  27.  Approximately how many nutrients are considered indispensable in the diet?

  1. 15
  2. 25
  3. 40
  4. 55


d    7(A)                  28.  Which of the following cannot add fat to the body?

  1. Alcohol
  2. Proteins
  3. Carbohydrates
  4. Inorganic nutrients


c     7(A)                  29.  Which of the following is an example of a micronutrient?

  1. Fat
  2. Protein
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Carbohydrate


c     7(K)                  30.  Which of the following nutrients does not yield energy during its metabolism?

  1. Fat
  2. Proteins
  3. Vitamins
  4. Carbohydrates


b    7(A)                  31.  How much energy is required to raise the temperature of one kilogram (liter) of water 1° C?

  1. 10 calories
  2. 1 kilocalorie
  3. 10,000 calories
  4. 1000 kilocalories


a     7(K)                  32.  Gram for gram, which of the following provides the most energy?

  1. Fats
  2. Alcohol
  3. Proteins
  4. Carbohydrates


a     8(K)                  33.  Food energy is commonly expressed in kcalories and in

  1. kilojoules.
  2. kilograms.
  3. kilometers.
  4. kilonewtons.


c     8(K)                  34.  International units of energy are expressed in

  1. newtons.
  2. calories.
  3. kilojoules.
  4. kilocalories.


c     8(K)                  35.  Approximately how many milliliters are contained in a half-cup of milk?

  1. 50
  2. 85
  3. 120
  4. 200


c     8(K)                  36.  A normal half-cup vegetable serving weighs approximately how many grams?

  1. 5
  2. 50
  3. 100
  4. 200


c     8(A)                  37.  A weight reduction regimen calls for a daily intake of 1400 kcalories, which includes 30 g of fat. Approximately what percentage of the total energy is contributed by fat?

  1. 8.5
  2. 15
  3. 19
  4. 25.5


a     8(A)                  38.  A diet provides a total of 2200 kcalories, of which 40% of the energy is from fat and 20% from protein. How many grams of carbohydrate are contained in the diet?

  1. 220
  2. 285
  3. 440
  4. 880


d    8(A)                  39.  What is the kcalorie value of a meal supplying 110 g of carbohydrates, 25 g of protein, 20 g of fat, and 5 g of alcohol?

  1. 160
  2. 345
  3. 560
  4. 755


a     9(A)                  40.  Which of the following nutrient sources yields more than 4 kcalories per gram?

  1. Plant fats
  2. Plant proteins
  3. Animal proteins
  4. Plant carbohydrates


a     9(A)                  41.  Which of the following is a result of the metabolism of energy nutrients?

  1. Energy is released
  2. Body fat increases
  3. Energy is destroyed
  4. Body water decreases

c     9(A)                  42.  Which of the following statements most accurately describes the composition of most foods?

  1. They contain only one of the three energy nutrients, although a few contain all of them
  2. They contain equal amounts of the three energy nutrients, except for high-fat foods
  3. They contain mixtures of the three energy nutrients, although only one or two may predominate
  4. They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, although there are numerous other foods that contain only one


b    9(K)                  43.  In the body, the chemical energy in food can be converted to any of the following except

  1. heat energy.
  2. light energy.
  3. electrical energy.
  4. mechanical energy.


d    10(K)                44.  When consumed in excess, all of the following can be converted to body fat and stored except

  1. sugar.
  2. corn oil.
  3. alcohol.
  4. vitamin C.


d    10(K)                45.  How many vitamins are known to be required in the diet of human beings?

  1. 5
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 13


b    10-11(K)            46.  Which of the following is not a characteristic of the vitamins?

  1. Essential
  2. Inorganic
  3. Destructible
  4. kCalorie-free


c     11(K)                47.  Which of the following is a feature of the minerals as nutrients?

  1. They are organic
  2. They yield 4 kcalories per gram
  3. Some become dissolved in body fluids
  4. Some may be destroyed during cooking


c     11(K)                48.  How many minerals are known to be required in the diet of human beings?

  1. 6
  2. 12
  3. 16
  4. 24


b    11(A)                49.  Which of the following is not a characteristic of the minerals?

  1. Yield no energy
  2. Unstable to light
  3. Stable in cooked foods
  4. Structurally smaller than vitamins


b    11(A)                50.  Overcooking a food is least likely to affect which of the following groups of nutrients?

  1. Vitamins
  2. Minerals
  3. Proteins
  4. Carbohydrates


Questions for Section 1.3 The Science of Nutrition


a     12(A)                51.  Your friend Carrie took a daily supplement of vitamin C and stated that she felt a lot better. Her experience is best described as a(n)

  1. anecdote.
  2. blind experiment.
  3. nutritional genomic.
  4. case-control experience.


b    12(A)                52.  The study of how a person’s genes interact with nutrients is termed

  1. genetic counseling.
  2. nutritional genomics.
  3. genetic metabolomics.
  4. nutritional nucleic acid pool.


b    12(K)                53.  What is the meaning of a double-blind experiment?

  1. Both subject groups take turns getting each treatment
  2. Neither subjects nor researchers know which subjects are in the control or experimental group
  3. Neither group of subjects knows whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do know
  4. Both subject groups know whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do not know


c     12(K)                54.  In the scientific method, a tentative solution to a problem is called the

  1. theory.
  2. prediction.
  3. hypothesis.
  4. correlation.


c     13(K)                55.  Among the following, which is the major weakness of a laboratory-based study?

  1. The costs are usually high
  2. It is difficult to replicate the findings
  3. The results cannot be applied to human beings
  4. Experimental variables cannot be easily controlled


d    13(A)                56.  What is the benefit of using controls in an experiment?

  1. The size of the groups can be very large
  2. The subjects do not know anything about the experiment
  3. The subjects who are treated are balanced against the placebos
  4. The subjects are similar in all respects except for the treatment being tested


a     13(A)                57.  What is the benefit of using a large sample size in an experiment?

  1. Chance variation is ruled out
  2. There will be no placebo effect
  3. The experiment will be double-blind
  4. The control group will be similar to the experimental group


c     13(K)                58.  A clinical trial must involve

  1. tissue cells in culture.
  2. rats or mice as subjects.
  3. human beings as subjects.
  4. computer modeling to design the study.


b    13;15(A)            59.  What is the benefit of using placebos in an experiment?

  1. All subjects are similar
  2. All subjects receive a treatment
  3. Neither subjects nor researchers know who is receiving treatment
  4. One group of subjects receives a treatment and the other group receives nothing


b    14(K)                60.  In nutrition research, observations of the quantities and types of foods eaten by groups of people and the health status of those groups are known as

  1. case-control studies.
  2. epidemiological studies.
  3. human intervention trials.
  4. correlation-control studies.


d    15(A)                61.  You have been asked to help a top nutrition researcher conduct human experiments on vitamin C. As the subjects walk into the laboratory, you distribute all the vitamin C pill bottles to the girls and all the placebo pill bottles to the boys. The researcher instantly informs you that there are two errors in your research practice. What steps should you have done differently?

  1. Given all the boys the vitamin C and the girls the placebo, and told them what they were getting
  2. Distributed the bottles randomly, randomized the subjects, and told them what they were getting
  3. Told the subjects which group they were in, and prevented yourself from knowing the contents of the pill bottles
  4. Prevented yourself from knowing what was in the pill bottles, and distributed the bottles randomly to the subjects


b    15(A)                62.  Overeating and gaining body weight is an example of a

  1. variable effect.
  2. positive correlation.
  3. negative correlation.
  4. randomization effect.


c     15(A)                63.  An increase in exercise accompanied by a decrease in body weight is an example of a

  1. variable effect.
  2. positive correlation.
  3. negative correlation.
  4. randomization effect.


a     16(A)                64.  Before publication in a reputable journal, the findings of a research study must undergo scrutiny by experts in the field according to a process known as

  1. peer review.
  2. cohort review.
  3. intervention examination.
  4. double-blind examination.


Questions for Section 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes


d    17(K)                65.  All of the following sets of values are included in the Dietary Reference Intakes except

  1. AI.
  2. RDA.
  3. EAR.
  4. LUT.


b    17(K)                66.  Which of the following is not a set of values within the Dietary Reference Intakes?

  1. Adequate Intakes
  2. Estimated Average Allowances
  3. Tolerable Upper Intake Levels
  4. Recommended Dietary Allowances


b    17(K)                67.  The smallest amount of a nutrient that is consumed over a prolonged period that maintains a specific function is called the nutrient

  1. allowance.
  2. requirement.
  3. tolerable limit.
  4. adequate intake.


c     17-18(A)            68.  If a group of people consumed an amount of protein equal to the average requirement for their population group, what percentage would receive insufficient amounts?

  1. 2
  2. 33
  3. 50
  4. 98


d    18(A)                69.  A health magazine contacted you for your expert opinion on what measure best describes the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population. Your reply should be:

  1. The Dietary Reference Intakes because they are a set of nutrient intake values for healthy people in the United States and Canada.
  2. The Tolerable Upper Intake levels because they are the maximum daily amount of a nutrient that appears safe for most healthy people.
  3. The Estimated Average Requirements because they reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient that will maintain a specific function in half of the healthy people of a population.
  4. The Recommended Dietary Allowances because they represent the average daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy people.


b    18(A)                70.  Recommended Dietary Allowances may be used to

  1. measure nutrient balance of population groups.
  2. assess dietary nutrient adequacy for individuals.
  3. treat persons with diet-related illnesses.
  4.          calculate exact food requirements for most individuals.


d    18(K)                71.  Recommended Dietary Allowances are based on the

  1. Lower Tolerable Limit.
  2. Upper Tolerable Limit.
  3. Subclinical Deficiency Value.
  4. Estimated Average Requirement.


d    18(K)                72.  The amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of about 98% of a population is termed the

  1. Adequate Intake.
  2. Daily Recommended Value.
  3. Tolerable Upper Intake Level.
  4. Recommended Dietary Allowance.


c     18(K)                73.  The RDA (Recommended Dietary Allowances) for nutrients are generally

  1. more than twice as high as anyone needs.
  2. the minimum amounts that average people need.
  3. designed to meet the needs of almost all healthy people.
  4. designed to prevent deficiency diseases in half the population.


b    18(K)                74.  How are the RDA for almost all vitamin and mineral intakes set?

  1. Low, to reduce the risk of toxicity
  2. High, to cover virtually all healthy individuals
  3. Extremely high, to cover every single person
  4.          At the mean, to cover most healthy individuals


c     18-19(K)            75.  Which of the following is not a feature of the Adequate Intake (AI) and the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)?

  1. Both values exceed the average requirements
  2. AI values are more tentative than RDA values
  3. The percentage of people covered is known for both values
  4. Both values may serve as nutrient intake goals for individuals


d    18-19(K)            76.  All of the following features are shared by the RDA and the AI except

  1. both are included in the DRI.
  2. both serve as nutrient intake goals for individuals.
  3. neither covers 100% of the population’s nutrient needs.
  4. neither is useful for evaluating nutrition programs for groups of people.


a     18-19(K)            77.  Which of the following is a purpose of both the Recommended Dietary Allowance and Adequate Intake?

  1. Setting nutrient goals for individuals
  2. Identifying toxic intakes of nutrients
  3. Restoring health of malnourished individuals
  4. Developing nutrition programs for schoolchildren


a     19(A)                78.  Bob consumes about 2500 kcalories per day, which is apportioned as 150 g of fat, 140 g of carbohydrate, and 150 g of protein. What would be the appropriate revisions to help Bob adjust his nutrient intake so that it matches the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges?

  1. 70 g fat, 156 g protein, 313 g carbohydrate
  2. 140 g fat, 150 g protein, 150 g carbohydrate
  3. 500 g fat, 750 g protein, 1250 g carbohydrate
  4. 10 g fat, 20 g protein, 45 g carbohydrate


d    19(A)                79.  Which of the following represents a rationale for setting the recommendation for energy?

  1. Because protein is an energy nutrient, the figures for energy intake are set in proportion to protein intake
  2. Because a large number of people are overweight, the figures are set to induce a gradual weight loss in most individuals
  3. Because the energy needs within each population group show little variation, the figures are set to meet the needs of almost all individuals
  4. Because a margin of safety would result in excess energy intake for a large number of people, the figures are set at the average energy intake

d    19(K)                80.  What does the Tolerable Upper Intake Level of a nutrient represent?

  1. The maximum amount allowed for fortifying a food
  2. A number calculated by taking twice the RDA or three times the AI
  3. The maximum allowable amount available in supplement form
  4. The maximum amount from all sources that appears safe for most healthy people


a     19(K)                81.  What set of values is used to recommend the average kcalorie intake that maintains population groups in energy balance?

  1. Estimated Energy Requirement
  2. Adequate Average Requirement
  3. Recommended Dietary Allowance
  4. Acceptable Energy Distribution Range


d    19(K)                82.  The percentage of kcalorie intakes for protein, fat, and carbohydrate that are thought to reduce the risk of chronic diseases are termed the

  1. Estimated Energy Requirements.
  2. Tolerable Range of Kilocalorie Intakes.
  3. Estimated Energy Nutrient Recommendations.
  4. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges.


d    19(K)                83.  What is the AMDR for carbohydrate?

  1. 5-10%
  2. 15-25%
  3. 30-40%
  4. 45-65%


b    19(A)                84.  Which of the following figures falls within the carbohydrate range of the AMDR?

  1. 35%
  2. 50%
  3. 70%
  4. 90%


a     19(K)                85.  What is the AMDR for protein?

  1. 10-35%
  2. 40-45%
  3. 50-65%
  4. 70-85%


c     19(A)                86.  What is the upper range of fat intake in the AMDR?

  1. 20%
  2. 25%
  3. 35%
  4. 50%


b    19(K)                87.  What is the AMDR for fat?

  1. 10-30%
  2. 20-35%
  3. 40-55%
  4. 60-75%


d    19(A)                88.  If a person consumed the upper AMDR limit for protein as part of a diet containing 2500 kcalories, approximately how many grams of protein would be ingested?

  1. 41
  2. 63
  3. 135
  4. 219

a     19(K)                89.  What is the weight (lbs) of the “reference” adult male?

  1. 154
  2. 165
  3. 172
  4. 179


b    19(K)                90.  What is the weight (lbs) of the “reference” adult female?

  1. 110
  2. 126
  3. 132
  4. 139


a     20(K)                91.  All of the following describe features for application of the recommended nutrient intakes except

  1. the recommendations also apply to sick people.
  2. the recommendations are designed to be met through intake of foods and not supplements.
  3. it is difficult and unnecessary to meet the recommended intakes for all nutrients each day.
  4. the recommendations are neither minimum requirements nor necessarily optimal intakes for everybody.


c     20(K)                92.  The Dietary Reference Intakes may be used to

  1. treat people with diet-related disorders.
  2. assess adequacy of all required nutrients.
  3. plan and evaluate diets for healthy people.
  4. assess adequacy of only vitamins and minerals.


Questions for Section 1.5 Nutrition Assessment


a     21(K)                93.  Which of the following is used to detect nutrient deficiencies?

  1. Assessment techniques
  2. Nutrient stages identification
  3. Overt symptoms identification
  4. Outward manifestations assessment


d    21-23(A)            94.  As a registered dietitian at Jones Hospital, you are instructed to write a policy statement on nutrition assessment procedures for all new patients. Which of the following are the most useful parameters for the nutrition assessment of individuals?

  1. Diet recall, food likes and dislikes, allergies, favorite family recipes
  2. Anthropometric data, physical examinations, food likes and dislikes, family tree
  3. Diet record that includes what the patient usually eats, which will provide sufficient information
  4. Historical information, anthropometric data, physical examinations, laboratory tests


a     22(K)                95.  Which of the following is an anthropometric measure?

  1. Body weight
  2. Blood pressure
  3. Blood iron level
  4. Food intake information


d    22-23(K)            96.  Inspection of hair, eyes, skin, and posture is part of the nutrition assessment component known as

  1. diet history.
  2. anthropometrics.
  3. biochemical testing.
  4. physical examination.


b    23(K)                97.  Which of the following is used to determine the presence of abnormal functions inside the body due to a nutrient deficiency?

  1. Diet history
  2. Laboratory tests
  3. Body weight loss
  4. Physical examination


a     23(K)                98.  Which of the following represents the usual sequence of stages in the development of a nutrient deficiency resulting from inadequate intake?

  1. Declining nutrient stores, abnormal functions within the body, and overt signs
  2. Abnormal functions within the body, declining nutrient stores, and overt signs
  3. Abnormal functions within the body, overt signs, and declining nutrient stores
  4. Declining nutrient stores, overt signs, and abnormal functions within the body


a     23(A)                99.  Which of the following would most likely lead to a primary nutrient deficiency?

  1. Inadequate nutrient intake
  2. Reduced nutrient absorption
  3. Increased nutrient excretion
  4. Increased nutrient destruction


c     23(K)               100. What type of deficiency is caused by inadequate absorption of a nutrient?

  1. Primary
  2. Clinical
  3. Secondary
  4. Subclinical


b    23(A)               101. A subclinical nutrient deficiency is defined as one that

  1. shows overt signs.
  2. is in the early stages.
  3. shows resistance to treatment.
  4. is similar to a secondary deficiency.


b    23(K)               102. Which of the following is an overt symptom of iron deficiency?

  1. Anemia
  2. Headaches
  3. Skin dryness
  4. Decreased red blood cell count


a     23(K)               103. To identify early-stage malnutrition, a health professional would use which of the following parameters?

  1. Laboratory tests
  2. Anthropometric data
  3. Physical exam results
  4. Review dietary intake data


d    23(K)               104. What entity coordinates nutrition-related activities of federal agencies?

  1. U.S. Public Health Service
  2. Food and Drug Administration
  3. Dietary Reference Intakes committee
  4. The National Nutrition Monitoring program


d    24(K)               105  The goal of Healthy People is to

  1. establish the DRI.
  2. identify national trends in food consumption.
  3. identify leading causes of death in the United States
  4. set goals for the nation’s health over the next 10 years.


c     24(K)               106. Which of the following does not describe a national trend in eating habits of Americans?

  1. We eat larger portions
  2. We snack more frequently
  3. We eat more high-fiber foods
  4. We eat more meals away from home


Questions for Section 1.6 Diet and Health


c     25(K)               107. The most common causes of death today in the United States include all of the following except

  1. cancer.
  2. diabetes.
  3. tuberculosis.
  4. heart disease.


b    25(K)               108. Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition?

  1. 1
  2. 4
  3. 7
  4. 10


d    25(K)               109. Which of the following leading causes of death in the U.S. does not bear a relationship to diet?

  1. Cancer
  2. Heart disease
  3. Diabetes mellitus
  4. Pneumonia and influenza


a     25(K)               110. Factors known to be related to a disease but not proven to be causal are called

  1. risk factors.
  2. genetic factors.
  3. degenerative factors.
  4. environmental factors.


c     25-26(K)           111. Which of the following statements defines the association between a risk factor and the development of a disease?

  1. All people with the risk factor will develop the disease
  2. The absence of a risk factor guarantees freedom from the disease
  3. The more risk factors for a disease, the greater the chance of developing that disease
  4. The presence of a factor such as heredity can be modified to lower the risk of degenerative diseases


c     26(K)               112. Which of the following factors makes the greatest contribution to deaths in the United States?

  1. Guns
  2. Alcohol
  3. Tobacco
  4. Automobiles


b    26(K)               113. What behavior is the major cause of death in the United States?

  1. Poor diet
  2. Tobacco use
  3. Alcohol intake
  4. Sexual activity


Questions for Section 1.7 Nutrition Information and Misinformation—On the Net and in the News


c     28(A)               114. Who would be the most appropriate person to consult regarding nutrition information?

  1. Chiropractor
  2. Medical doctor
  3. Registered dietitian
  4. Health food store manager


b    30(K)               115. All of the following are minimum requirements for becoming a registered dietitian except

  1. earning an undergraduate degree.
  2. completing up to a three-week clinical internship or the equivalent.
  3. completing approximately 60 semester hours in nutrition and food science.
  4. passing a national examination administered by the American Dietetic Association.


c     30-31(K)           116. Which of the following describes the legal limitations, if any, for a person who disseminates dietary advice to the public?

  1. The title “dietitian” can be used by anyone in all states
  2. The title “nutritionist” can be used by anyone in all states
  3. A license to practice as a nutritionist or dietitian is required by some states
  4. A license to practice as a nutritionist or dietitian is mandatory in all states


c     30-31(K)           117. Which of the following individuals is most likely to possess the least amount of nutrition training?

  1. Dietetic Technician
  2. Registered Dietician
  3. Certified Nutritionist
  4. Dietetic Technician, Registered


b    30-31(K)           118. For which of the following titles, by definition, must the individual be college educated and pass a national examination administered by the American Dietetic Association?

  1. Medical Doctor
  2. Registered Dietician
  3. Certified Nutritionist
  4. Certified Nutrition Therapist


a     30-31(K)           119. Which of the following best describes a college-educated nutrition and food specialist who is qualified to make evaluations of the nutritional health of people?

  1. Registered dietitian
  2. Licensed nutritionist
  3. Master of nutrient utilization
  4. Doctor of food and nutritional sciences


c     31(A)               120. A person who assists registered dietitians has the formal title of

  1. dietetic assistant.
  2. nutrition assistant.
  3. dietetic technician.
  4. nutrition technician.


a     32(K)               121. All of the following are recognized, credible sources of nutrition information except

  1. Who’s Who in Nutrition.
  2. the Food and Drug Administration.
  3. the American Dietetic Association.
  4. the United States Department of Agriculture.





G    6                      01.  Nutrient with the highest body concentration

L    7                      02.  Substance containing no carbon or not pertaining to living things

D    7                      03.  Number of indispensable nutrients for human beings

J     7                      04.  Most substances containing carbon-hydrogen bonds

I     7                      05.  Substance containing nitrogen

E    7                      06.  Energy (kcal) required to increase temperature of 1 kg of water from 0° C to 100° C

F    9                      07.  Nutrient with the highest energy density

C    9                      08.  Energy (kcal) yield of five grams of sugar

A    9                      09.  Energy (kcal) yield of one gram of alcohol

B    11                     10.  Number of indispensable minerals for human beings

N    13                     11.  An unproven statement

K    13                     12.  An inert medication

M   13                     13.  Possessing the quality of showing evidence

H    19                     14.  The recommended intake is set at the population mean

P    21                     15.  Excess nutrient intake leads to this

O    21                     16.  Deficient nutrient intake leads to this

Q    22                     17.  Measurement of physical characteristics

S    22                     18.  Inspection of skin, tongue, eyes, hair, and fingernails

R    23                     19.  A nutrient deficiency showing outward signs

T    23                     20.  A nutrient deficiency in the early stages



  1. 7
  2. 16
  3. 20
  4. 40
  5. 100
  6. Fat
  7. Water
  8. Energy
  9. Protein
  10. Organic
  11. Placebo
  12. Inorganic
  13. Validity
  14. Hypothesis
  15. Undernutrition
  16. Overnutrition
  17. Anthropometrics
  18. Overt deficiency
  19. Physical examination
  20. Subclinical deficiency





3-6                                01.  Describe six behavioral or social motives governing people’s food choices.

3-6                                02.  Explain how food choices are influenced by habits, emotions, physical appearance, and ethnic background.

4                                  03.  Discuss some of the consequences of eating in response to emotions.

7;10-11                          04.  Define the term organic. How do the properties of vitamins relate to their organic nature? Contrast these points with the properties of inorganic compounds such as minerals.

12-15                            05.  List the strengths and weaknesses of epidemiological studies, laboratory-based studies, and clinical trials.

15                                 06.  Explain the importance of the placebo and the double-blind technique in carrying out research studies.

17-19                            07.  Describe the steps involved in establishing nutrient values that make up the Dietary Reference Intakes.

17-19                            08.  Compare and contrast the meaning of Adequate Intakes, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Estimated Average Requirements, and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels for nutrients.

19                                 09.  What approach is taken in setting recommendations for energy intakes? Why is this approach taken? How does this approach differ from that taken for other nutrients?

19-20                            10.  Compare and contrast the rationales underlying dietary recommendations for individuals versus those for populations.

21-23                            11.  List and discuss four methods commonly used to assess nutritional status of individuals.

23-24                            12.  Discuss how the results from national nutrition surveys are used by private and government agencies and groups.

24-25                            13.  List the national trends of food consumption over the past 30 years.

24                                 14.  List 10 goals of the Healthy People program. How successful is the program thus far?

25-26                            15.  Discuss the meaning and significance of the relationships between risk factors and chronic diseases.

28-29;32                        16.  List ways to identify a reliable nutrition information website.

31-33                            17.  A.   List techniques that help identify nutrition quackery.

  1. Where can you find reliable sources of nutrition information?

32-33                            18.  A.   Explain the education and training requirements associated with obtaining registration as a dietitian.

  1. List several career areas in which registered dietitians are often employed.

understanding normal and clinical nutrition 9th edition test bank